I am correct in my assumption that hard woods would have less bleeding of a varnish or stain than soft woods?
Simple example to describe what I mean - Take a piece of wood. Draw a line down the middle of the board and then stain just one side. I gather there may be some bleeding of the stain from one side of the line to the other as wood is porous.
So softer wood = more porous = more bleeding?
Yes? No?
Thanks,
James