Originally Posted by
Mike Henderson
To help me better understand your position, what states rights were the federal government trampling on at that time? Especially to the point of driving the southern states to secede? And if the federal government was trampling on states rights, why was it only the southern states who felt the trampling to point of seceding? Why were northern states not as incensed as the southern states?
Mike
The North had imposed tariffs on goods from France that the South were a bit dependent upon. Yet the proceeds of those tariffs were going to the further advancement of technology (factories) in the North. The South was not benefiting from the monies that they were being required to pay. This left them in the position that they could not take advantage of the very "stuff" that had allowed the North to get away from using slave labor. This left the South in that "Catch 22" situation - they had to continue to use Slave labor in order to pay the tariffs that he North had imposed so that they could avoid using slave labor. I think in today's terms that would be akin to an "unfunded mandate".
Last edited by David Epperson; 04-16-2011 at 5:00 PM.
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